If the phrase ``commensurate with the value of the property'' in
Article 20(6) means that a party must pay the government the
market rate for the property when it is re-aqcuired, then it
seems that a party will not realize economic gain from
re-aquisition (unless the market has under-valued the property).
Would a party ever want to re-aquire property under 20(6) for
non-economic reaons (e.g., reasons of individual sentiment or
societal tradition)? (Sometimes, in contracts or equitable
remedies, parcels of land are treated as unique assets and given
special treatment which would not be given to fungible goods.)
It is also possible that the ``amount as is commensurate with the
value of the property'' will be, in practice, less than market
price. Should it be?
1.)
What is the practical import of Article 20(6)? Stools are now
trying to re-aquire certain property previously acquired by the
government under this clause. Why would a stool do that? Is
there an economic benefit?
Next: Article 257
Up: The Constitution
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Josh DuBois
2006-04-15