2.)
Article 266(3) vests the ``freehold reversionary interest'' in the
president in cases where non-citizens had freeholds before August
22, 1969. In 2019, the President will get the benefit of these
reversionary interests. What does this mean? This ``freehold
reversionary interest'' sounds like what the holder of allodial
title would have in stool land where a subject holds a customary
freehold. Is this clause giving allodial title to the President,
as well as terminating the freeholds held by non-citizens?
Regardless of the fine points of terminology, is it likely that
the stools or skins who held allodial title to lands affected by
Article 266 will try to get the lands back when the leaseholds end
in 2019? What arguments could they use to do so? Should they win?
1.)
Article 266(1) prohibits the vesting of a ``freehold'' interest in
a non-citizen. Why is the word ``freehold'' used? Does this
mean that an allodial interest can be transfered to a
non-citizen? (A similar question arises in terms of Article
267(5) below.) The term ``freehold'' is not defined in Article
295 of the Constitution, which deals with interpretation. The Land
Title Registration Law, mentioned above, does use the word
``freehold'' as distinct from the allodial interest.2.4 P.N.D.C.L. 152 was in force when the constitution was enacted.
Does this mean that its provisions should be used to help
interpret the word ``freehold'' in the Article 266(1)?
Footnotes
Next: Article 267
Up: The Constitution
Previous: Article 257
Contents
Josh DuBois
2006-04-15